No. 45. >> How do we know that the suffering servant of Isaiah 52 and 53 is the Messiah and not the nation of Israel as some have claimed? >>DR. DANIEL L. GARD: That, too, is a good question because you will see a lot of literature on the book of Isaiah will make that precise claim. That these texts actually speak not of Messiah, as we would understand him as being Jesus Christ. But rather, more of the nation of Israel. Or perhaps even of Isaiah himself in some cases. This is one of the reasons why seminary students need to be familiar with liberal interpretation of the Bible. Simply because I would say probably 90% of everything that's written in the Old Testament is written from that particular perspective. And if you're aware of it, then he can certainly also utilize material that's written from a non-conservative perspective. But be able to identify what is worth paying attention to and what is shaped or colored by the liberal perspective of the author. In the case of Isaiah 53, this particular text has for many centuries actually troubled those who approach the Scripture from a non-believing perspective. One of the most common theories is that this suffering servant actually applies to Israel in its suffering in Babylon. But there are several reasons why this cannot possibly apply to the nation of Israel. But has to be applied to a person. And in particular, the person of Jesus of Nazareth. To begin with, the servant of Isaiah 53 is presented as an innocent and guiltless sufferer. Now, nowhere is Israel portrayed in those terms. In fact, Holy Scripture is quite clear in the Old Testament that Israel is anything but an innocent and guiltless sufferer. The Babylonian exile itself occurs because of the sin of the people of Israel. As you may recall in Isaiah 1, Isaiah says in that fourth verse of that chapter that it is a sinful nation. People laden with inequity. A brood of evildoers. Children who are corrupters. I dare you to preach that at your congregation some day. But that's what Isaiah preached to his. And he described them quite aptly. He goes on in that same chapter to characterize Judah as Sodom and Jerusalem as a harlot. And the people as those whose hands are stained with blood. Now, that's a very far cry from this one who is portrayed in Isaiah 53. One who has done no violence. Nor was any deceit in his hands. So clearly this could not be the nation of Israel. It has to be somebody else. The prophet also said that it pleased the Lord to bruise him. Some have claimed that the awful treatment of the Jewish people, particularly during times like the Holocaust, was God's pleasure so that the suffering of the servant of Isaiah 53:10 is found in those kinds of events. But can we really say that Israel's suffering during that horrible period was something that pleased the Lord? Yet, it does make sense in light of the gospels to understand the sacrifice of Christ who came to redeem the creation of God as, indeed, being something which pleased the Father. Thirdly, a person mentioned in this passage or had this person mentioned in this passage suffers silently and willingly. Yet, you will never find human beings, whether Israel or Gentiles, who suffer in that way, silently and willingly. Another point is that the figure described in Isaiah 53 suffers, dies and rises again to atone for his people's sin. Now, the Hebrew word that's used in Isaiah 53:10 for a sin suffering is ***ashom. And that's a technical term which means a sin offering. Look in Leviticus 5 and 6 for a fuller interpretation of that particular word. Isaiah 53 describes a sinless and perfect sacrificial lamb who takes upon him the sins of others so that they might be forgiven. This is nowhere predicated of any people. Israel or Gentile nations. But only of the Lamb of God. Another point is that it is the prophet who is speaking in the passage. And he says: Who has believed our message? Now, the term message usually refers to a prophetic message as it does, for example, in Jeremiah 49:14. When we understand the parallelism of Verse 1, we see who has believed our message as parallel to that to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed? The arm of the Lord refers to God's powerful act of salvation. So the message of the speaker is the message of the prophet declaring what God has done to save his people. The prophet speaking, of course, is Isaiah. Who says that the sufferer was punished for the transgressions of my people. According to Verse 8. Who are the people of Isaiah? It's Israel. So the sufferer of Isaiah 53 suffered for Israel. He could not be Israel. In Isaiah 53 the sufferer dies and is buried according to Verses 8 through 9. Now, the people of Israel have, indeed, suffered greatly. But they have never died as a whole. They've been out of the land. That's true. But they've never ceased to be among the living. Yet, Jesus died, was buried and, in fact, rose again. Now, others interestingly have seen this as a text referring not to Israel and certainly not to Jesus. But to Isaiah himself. Isaiah said he was a sinful man with unclean lips. Isaiah 6:5 through 7. That text describing the call of Isaiah. How could Isaiah be the one who was without sin? Nor did Isaiah die as an atonement for sin. So of whom does Isaiah speak? I think it's clear that the only one who possibly fulfills this text is none other than Jesus of Nazareth. And in fact, the New Testament itself in many places applies this text to the suffering servant, Jesus of Nazareth.